[see also: equally, merely, only, simply, exactly, precisely]
His techniques work just as well for general v.
The other inequality is just as easy to prove.
When n=0, (7) just amounts to saying that......
Now, just the fact that F is a homeomorphism lets us prove that......
Can f(x)>1 be replaced by just x>1?
This follows from Lemma 2 just the way (a) follows from (b).
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